Does a wife have to make Ghusl after Oral Sex?

People were asking that I really need to find out what the ruling is. After running around SunniPath for hours this is what I deduced. If you do not have a female ejaculation upon stimulating your husband then you do not have to perform Ghusl. He however will have to perform Ghusl. You will have to perform Wudu because you touched his private. Of all of the answers on SunniPath this is the one that is the closest to the circumstance in question.

Ghusl: unsure whether orgasm occurred
Answered by Shaykh Faraz Rabbani, SunniPath Academy Teacher

(Newly married couple) Does a wife have to make a ghusl if she was stimulated by her husband, feeling wetness but not being sure if she fully experienced an orgasm?

Walaikum assalam wa rahmatullah,

Only if an orgasm or sexual climax occurred. [see answer below]

In the Encarta Reference Library:

“In women, orgasm is characterized by a series of rhythmic muscular contractions of the orgasmic platform and uterus. These contractions can range in number and intensity. The sensation is very intense—more intense than the tingling or pleasure that accompany strong sexual arousal.”

Wassalam,

Faraz Rabbani

So even if he cums and it gets on you then you only have to wash it off and make wudu. If anyone who reads this is in contact with any of those brothers from SunniPath and my deduction is incorrect then please let me know. Swallowing his Sperm is Highly Disliked, but it is not Haram. I know that one hits hard and really separates the spitters from the swallowers. If you enjoy swallowing for those who do it isn't Haram, but it is close to that edge so you have to decide where you want to take that. I have included the posts that I used to come to my deduction.

Fiqh 1.11: Sperm, Al-Mani

Some scholars say that sperm is impure, but apparently it is pure, for it is only recommended to wash it off if it is still wet, and to scratch it off if it is dry. Said 'Aishah, "I used to scratch the sperm off the Messenger of Allah's clothes if it was dry, and wash it off if it was still wet." (This is related by ad-Daraqutni, Abu 'Awanah and al-Bazzar). It is also related that Ibn 'Abbas said, "I asked the Messenger of Allah about sperm on clothes. He said, 'It is the same as mucus and spittle. It is sufficient to rub the area with a rag or cloth."'

The hadith was related by ad-Daraqutni, al-Baihaqi and atTahawi. There is a difference in the narration over whether it should be in marfu'or mauqoof form.

Bedroom Fiqh: Clarifications on a Previous Post
Answered by Shaykh Amjad Rasheed

I recently read in one of your answers that it is permissible for husband and wife to stimulate each other by using their mouths and tongues on each other’s genitals. You then conditioned this permissibility by saying that, "Someone who does what has been mentioned above should avoid filth if it is present on the private parts." I have a number of questions on this point:

1. By "should", do you mean it is obligatory to do so?
2. Are ejaculate [m: Ar. maniyy, cf. Reliance, e10.4], pre-ejaculate [m: Ar. madhy, cf. Reliance, e10.5(1)], and other fluids that exit the male and female private parts included in what must be avoided?
3. What exactly is meant by "avoid"? Does it mean not swallowing or does it also mean avoiding contact?
4. If, by "avoid", you mean avoiding contact, then this effectively renders these acts forbidden since it is almost impossible to avoid contact with these fluids since pre-ejaculate (Ar. madhy), for example, will inevitably be present in such a situation.
5. Are these acts disliked (makruh) or contrary to the sunnah?

بسم الله الرحمن الرحيم الحمد لله رب العالمين و صلى الله على سيدنا محمد و على آله و صحبه و سلم أما بعد

(1) Yes, it is obligatory to avoid filth (meaning to touch it when it is moist or when the one touching it is moist) except when one needs to. Otherwise, this would be considered smearing oneself with filth, which is forbidden.

(2) Ejaculate (Ar. maniyy) is pure, so it is not necessary to avoid. However, swallowing it is forbidden because it is considered repulsive. As for pre-ejaculate (Ar. madhy) and other fluids that exit the private parts, they are filthy, and must be avoided as described above.

(3) "Avoiding [h: filth]" means avoiding direct skin contact with any part of the body, whether by swallowing or by touching.

(4) What the scholars have explicitly mentioned is that these acts are permitted between husband and wife. However, they are only permitted if one avoids contact with filth because there is no need [h: to touch the filth] in this case. So if one wants to perform such an act, he or she must stay away from filth. [h: As for the objection that the condition of avoiding filth effectively renders these acts impermissible, it is not true because] not everyone immediately excretes pre-ejaculate (Ar. madhy); rather, people have differing natures in this regard.

(5) What is explicitly mentioned in the texts is that these acts are permissible. I have not seen anyone mention that they are disliked or better not to do (Ar.khilaf al-awla), and Allah knows best.

Amjad Rasheed
Amman, Jordan

(Translated by Moustafa Elqabbany and Hamza Karamali)

Ghusl Upon Ejaculation
Answered by Shaykh Faraz Rabbani, SunniPath Academy Teacher

Must a woman of the Hanafi Madhab perform ghusl if she engages in sexual activities with her husband where she climaxes but this is done *without* penetration. Furthermore, there is no contact with her privates as she is wearing undergarments. What about if all of the above remains true but she comes into contact with her husband's semen?

A purificatory bath (ghusl) would be required in such a case, because the Prophet (Allah bless him & give him peace) said, “Water is required by water.” [A rigorously authentic hadith reported by Muslim, from Abu Sa`id al-Khudri (Allah be pleased with him)] That is, one needs to use water for a purificatory bath, if ejaculation takes place.

Muwaffaq al-Din Ibn Qudama (d. 620 AH) mentioned in his masterpiece of Hanbali and comparative fiqh, al-Mughni,

“The exiting of ejaculate with desire makes a purificatory bath (ghusl) obligatory for men and women, whether in waking or sleep. This is the position of the generality of the fuqaha, as Tirmidhi said, and we are not aware of any disagreement on this.” [Ibn Qudama, al-Mughni, 1: 278, Dar Ihya’ al-Turath al-Arabi]

Imam Abu Bakr al-Kasani reported scholarly consensus on this in his Bada’i` al-Sana’i` (1: 36)

As for when actual intercourse takes places, a purificatory bath is obligatory (fard), even if no ejaculation takes place.

Ala’ al-Din Abidin, the 19^th Century Damascene faqih and son of Ibn Abidin, said in his al-Hadiyya al-`Ala’iyya:

“A purificatory bath is necessitated by:

a) sperm or female ejaculate that leaves its place of origin with desire [f: whether actual or effective], even if it exits the body without desire, even if without sexual intercourse;

b) the head of the penis entering either private part of a living human being who is fit for sexual intercourse, even without any release of sexual fluids…” [al-Hadiyya al-`Ala’iyya, ]

Wassalam,
Faraz Rabbani

.....

One becomes in a state of (janaba) for two reasons:

The first reason: Semen exiting the man's penis or female ejaculate exiting the woman's vagina, from its place of origin with desire. Abu Dawud and others have related from Aisha (Allah be pleased with her) that she said: "The Messenger of Allah was asked about a man who finds wetness (f: of semen from ejaculation), but does not remember having a wet dream. So he said (Allah bless him and give him peace), 'he must perform ghusl.' And he was asked about a man who thinks he had a wet dream, but finds no wetness. So he said (Allah bless him and give him peace), 'he does not have to perform ghusl.' So Umm Sulaim said, 'if a woman finds wetness, does she have to perform ghusl?' He said: Yes, women are the partners of men.'" .....

When and how is a woman napak (impure), and in need of Ghusl?

Wa Alaykum Assalam wa Rahmatullah wa Barakatuhu,

In the Name of Allah, Most Merciful & Compassionate

“A purificatory bath is necessitated by:

a) sperm or female ejaculate that leaves its place of origin with desire [f: whether actual or effective], even if it exits the body without desire, even if without sexual intercourse;

b) the head of the penis entering either private part of a living human being who is fit for sexual intercourse, even without any release of sexual fluids…”

c) The finding, on one’s clothes, of what looks like semen after waking up from sleep or loss of consciousness.

d) Menses and post-natal bleeding (i.e. when they end)

[al-Hadiyya al-`Ala’iyya and Nur al-Idhah wa Najat al-Arwah ]

Wassalam,

The Sunni Path Q/A Team